A "word" is not silence, but an ambiguity is. The word in Greek [hews] translated as 'until' in Matt 1:25 can mean (1) up to but not excluding continuation of the action or (2) up to but not after. There is no way to tell (from the context of 1:26) which of these two senses is meant. But using the absence of a specification that removes an ambiguity as evidence for one or the other disambiguation is an argument from silence, and thus is a fallacy.
-A8
Sure you can. The normal usage of the term in context would imply that the virginity of Mary was a temporary rather than a permanent condition. It was noted that she was married to Joseph, but Joseph did not consummate the marriage (know) "until" after Jesus was born.
It is only if you have a presumption that she was a perpetual virgin that you would have a problem with that being the proper use of the word in context. That presumption did not begin to show its face until 3 centuries later.