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To: kosta50
At a very early date it appears that the four Gospels were unites in one collection. They must have been brought together very soon after the writing of the Gospel according to John. This fourfold collection was known originally as ‘The Gospel’ in the singular, not ‘The Gospels’ in the plural No, anything that was in the church that quoted Christ's teachings was considered a "Gospel" (Good news). The authors were unknown because non of those books was signed.

The Gospels had headings 'according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John.

Today, we know that many of the NT books are not written by the people who were traditionally credited as authors. These include the half of +Paul's Epistles, the Acts, Gospel of John, the Apocalypse of John, 1 Peter and 2 Peter deutero-canonicals, etc.

'We' know nothing of the kind.

Those are ill conceived opinions by higher critics.

There is much reason to doubt the book of Daniel, the Torah's authorship and so on.

Once again, there is no legitimate reason to doubt any of the Old Testament books or their authors.

The only books that have some historical and other eivdence are the historical books, but then they have also been shown to be extremely exaggerated. king david's 'vast' kingdom was anything but that, etc.

No, actually David's Jewish empire did span a very great area.

By the time of Irenaeus us, who, though a native of Asia Minor, was bishop of Lyons in Gaul about AD 180, the idea of a fourfold Gospel had become so axiomatic in the Church Agreed. But that axiomatic 'knowledge' was based entirely on trandition of men, not any solid evidence of authroship.

It was axiomatic because of the authorship.

No book of the New Testament would be accepted unless the authors could be identified as either an apostle or close to one.

One thing must be emphatically stated. The New Testament books did not become authoritative for the Church because they were formally included in a canonical list; on the contrary, the Church included them in her canon because she already regarded them as divinely inspired, recognising their innate worth and generally apostolic authority, direct or indirec

Well, I have no objection to that...except I would say overvhelmingly more indirect than direct.

I think you mean 'unofficial' rather than 'official'

12,254 posted on 04/09/2007 5:24:26 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (For what saith the scripture? (Rom.4:3))
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To: fortheDeclaration
The Gospels had headings 'according to Matthew, Mark, Luke and John

Show me the oldest copies of the fragments showing the first page. Do some research. And, the 19th century is long gone. Perhaps you need to update your sources.

'We' know nothing of the kind

That head is still stuck in the sand. Denial is not a proof, FTD.

Once again, there is no legitimate reason to doubt any of the Old Testament books or their authors

Why? Because someone chooses to believe so against all evidence? Hey, if you wish to believe so, that's fine with me; just don't present your belifs as facts.

No, actually David's Jewish empire did span a very great area

Again, you need to update your readings.

It was axiomatic because of the authorship

The authorship of many biblical books is based on traditional belief and not on evidence. I hate to burst your bubble, but many of the books purportedly written by the same author demonstrate dissimilar writing style, vocabulary and other elements that betray them as having differet authors claiming to be one and the sam Apostle.

12,264 posted on 04/09/2007 7:37:36 AM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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