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To: kosta50

At a very early date it appears that the four Gospels were unites in one collection. They must have been brought together very soon after the writing of the Gospel according to John. This fourfold collection was known originally as ‘The Gospel’ in the singular, not ‘The Gospels’ in the plural; there was only one Gospel, narrated in four records, distinguishes as ‘according to Matthew’, ‘according to Mark’, and so on. About AD 115 Ignatius, bishop of Antioch, refers to ‘The Gospel’ as an authoritative writing, and as he knew more than one of the four ‘Gospels’ it may well be that by ‘The Gospel’ sans phrase he means the fourfold collection which went by that name.

By the time of Irenaeus us, who, though a native of Asia Minor, was bishop of Lyons in Gaul about AD 180, the idea of a fourfold Gospel had become so axiomatic in the Church at large that he can refer to it as an established and recognised fact as obvious as the four cardinal points of the compass or the four winds:

‘For as there are four quarters of the world in which we live, an d four universal winds, and as the Church is dispersed over all the earth, and the gospel is’ the pillar and base of the Church and the breath of life, so it is natural that it should have four pillars, breathing immortality from every quarter arid kindling the life of men anew. Whence it is manifest that the Word, the architect of all things, who sits upon the cherubim and holds all things together, having been manifested to men, has given us the gospel in fourfold form, but held together by one Spirit.”

One thing must be emphatically stated. The New Testament books did not become authoritative for the Church because they were formally included in a canonical list; on the contrary, the Church included them in her canon because she already regarded them as divinely inspired, recognising their innate worth and generally apostolic authority, direct or indirect. The first ecclesiastical councils to classify the canonical books were both held in North Africa-at Hippo Regius in 393 and at Carthage in 397-but what these councils did was not to impose something new upon the Christian communities but to codify what was already the general practice of those communities.

http://www.worldinvisible.com/library/ffbruce/ntdocrli/ntdocc03.htm


12,223 posted on 04/04/2007 7:24:44 AM PDT by fortheDeclaration (For what saith the scripture? (Rom.4:3))
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To: fortheDeclaration
At a very early date it appears that the four Gospels were unites in one collection. They must have been brought together very soon after the writing of the Gospel according to John. This fourfold collection was known originally as ‘The Gospel’ in the singular, not ‘The Gospels’ in the plural

No, anything that was in the church that quoted Christ's teachings was considered a "Gospel" (Good news). The authors were unknown because non of those books was signed.

Today, we know that many of the NT books are not written by the people who were traditionally credited as authors. These include the half of +Paul's Epistles, the Acts, Gospel of John, the Apocalypse of John, 1 Peter and 2 Peter deutero-canonicals, etc.

There is much reason to doubt the book of Daniel, the Torah's authorship and so on. The only books that have some historical and other eivdence are the historical books, but then they have also been shown to be extremely exaggerated. king david's 'vast' kingdom was anything but that, etc.

By the time of Irenaeus us, who, though a native of Asia Minor, was bishop of Lyons in Gaul about AD 180, the idea of a fourfold Gospel had become so axiomatic in the Church

Agreed. But that axiomatic 'knowledge' was based entirely on trandition of men, not any solid evidence of authroship.

One thing must be emphatically stated. The New Testament books did not become authoritative for the Church because they were formally included in a canonical list; on the contrary, the Church included them in her canon because she already regarded them as divinely inspired, recognising their innate worth and generally apostolic authority, direct or indirec

Well, I have no objection to that...except I would say overvhelmingly more indirect than direct.

12,228 posted on 04/04/2007 11:09:32 AM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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