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To: Forest Keeper; Kolokotronis; annalex; jo kus; HarleyD
I can't disagree with you fully on your reply. Of course, not all Protestant communities sanction homosexuality or female pastors, and I am sure you'd find Orthodox women not much different (in America) than those who attend Protestants services.

Likewise, certainly, there are many ways to gain fuller understanding of any issue with research etc., including the Bible.

However, my point relates to an average "Jo" (not, not jo kus!) who picks up a Bible and starts reading it in English. unless he goes out of his way to discern the text to a greater depth, he will get a false impression.

The fallacy is not really glaringly obvious, but may even seem trivial. However, the concepts derived from such fine differences actually may lead him astray.

Consider watching a historical movie. Unless you are a history buff, or just happen to come from the are where the movie narrative takes place, you are likely to walk out of the movie theater with a skewed or confused idea what took place.

What I am talking about are subtle nuances that are not obvious. Thus, Jesus says "be therefore perfect..." but He is really saying become (future tense) therefore perfect..." Or, in the Lord's Prayer we read "forgive us as we forgive ..." instead of "forgive as we have forgiven ..." The Greek version is in perfect harmony with the verses that follow, namely that "you must forgive in order for the Father to forgive you..." The order of what must take place first is crucial in formulating the faith.

Thus, I had a Protestant on one of these threads tell me that that was a lot of hot air because we have already been forgiven!

Take for instance even the English language. vengeance used to mean a slightly different thing than it does today. reading KJV English is not conducive to clear comprehension because it is an outdated language. Concepts change, and so do words.

Thus, in order to be able to read the NT and fully understand it without going to lexicons and following someone else's interpretation, it is imperative to read it and comprehend it in Greek.

As a native Serbian speaker, I know that no translation ever lives up to the original. Unfortunately, people who speak only one language can never appreciate that because they have no reference to relate to. Just as men will never know what its like to give birth.

11,962 posted on 03/24/2007 4:10:02 PM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50; Kolokotronis; annalex; jo kus; HarleyD; Quix; Dr. Eckleburg
However, my point relates to an average "Jo" (no, not jo kus!) who picks up a Bible and starts reading it in English. Unless he goes out of his way to discern the text to a greater depth, he will get a false impression.

Certainly our "Jo" is by no means "average". :) ...... But here we have an honest disagreement. Even in the English, as Quix has said, the Gospel message is clear. You are absolutely right to say that correct discernment is critical. However, what would you say the source of discernment is? Is it the free will brains that God gave us and then respected so much not to tamper with? Or, does God grace us with discernment, on a continual basis? IF God is truly in control, then there will be no false impressions about the Gospel for those God intends to receive it, in any language and at any time. Eyes to see and ears to hear.

[continuing:] The fallacy is not really glaringly obvious, but may even seem trivial. However, the concepts derived from such fine differences actually may lead him astray.

For many theological points this is true. Some rely on a body of men for resolution, and some rely on the Holy Spirit. Of course, individuals who rely on the Spirit don't get it right every time, just as individuals who claim authority by the pronouncement of men don't get it right every time. God's Church as a whole has nonetheless been preserved and united on the core truths.

What I am talking about are subtle nuances that are not obvious. Thus, Jesus says "be therefore perfect..." but He is really saying become (future tense) therefore perfect..." Or, in the Lord's Prayer we read "forgive us as we forgive ..." instead of "forgive as we have forgiven ..." The Greek version is in perfect harmony with the verses that follow, namely that "you must forgive in order for the Father to forgive you..." The order of what must take place first is crucial in formulating the faith.

But what is your conclusion about "subtle nuances"? Are understanding of these required to be Christian? I don't think so. In subsequent posts to yours here, I have covered the "tense" issue and how we interpret based on different paradigms. I see God as giving His children an instruction manual on how to live a Godly life VERSUS God making some kind of a "sales pitch" in print. Fundamentally, this is still a matter of interpretation.

I am sure that the Greek you have been taught is in full harmony with whatever conclusion you need it to be in harmony with. It is simply not plausible that the Greek can only be read and interpreted to fully support the Apostolic view, or views. I can and do appreciate that YOU read it a certain way and believe it is correct. No problem. But again I do not accept a monopoly on the language. Too many impossible things would have to be true if the monopoly was true.

[continuing:] Thus, I had a Protestant on one of these threads tell me that that was a lot of hot air because we have already been forgiven!

The Elect HAVE already been forgiven. Today is the day we remember what made that happen.

Take for instance even the English language. vengeance used to mean a slightly different thing than it does today. reading KJV English is not conducive to clear comprehension because it is an outdated language. Concepts change, and so do words. Thus, in order to be able to read the NT and fully understand it without going to lexicons and following someone else's interpretation, it is imperative to read it and comprehend it in Greek.

NO, there is no "Thus ...". :) Your conclusion does not follow the premise. While some concepts and word usages certainly do change, it makes no sense to conclude "therefore the only thing to do is use Greek". No, as most non-Greek-speaking Christians of all stripes, you must admit, have concluded, the thing to do is put together a translation that is faithful and usable by the people of the (then) modern day. Except for Orthodoxy, this is what has been done (I think) pretty much from before the time of the schism.

Once again, if Greek is the only way, then Christianity is not a revealed faith but rather a secret faith. That makes no sense to me since there are, and have been plenty of Reformers who are fluent in Greek. I could study nothing else for the next ten years and be better off, but it wouldn't change my theology.

12,241 posted on 04/06/2007 12:26:09 PM PDT by Forest Keeper
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