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To: kosta50
You do not consider what most scholars assert: that the Septuagint is a variant of Jewish scriptural tradition.

Could these variants be what Jesus referred to as "traditions that make the word of God of no effect". Variants are like mutations --- they weaken the species. The Jews were zealous for the accuracy of their original scriptures. Variants were were destroyed and buried so as to not be passed on to later generations.

Yet I am sure you do recognize that there are koine Greek fragments of OT material that date back to the third century BC onward that differ from the Hebrew version.

Most of the fragments are from the Pentateuch, and since they follow the Hebrew text very closely, they are evidence that the first five books may very well have been authoritatively translated --- but that's all. Fragments from the other books are said to be poorly translated and loose paraphrases which means that amateurs were making haphazard attempts but failed. Furthermore if these fragments were found in Cave 4, where 40% of the fragments of the DSS came from, they have to be seriously questioned, since that is believed to have been the place where things were discarded not stored. The Hebrew manuscript of Isaiah, for example, was preserved in a jar because it was valuable.

Perhaps that's why those following the Hebrew version did not recongize Christ, and those who read the Septuagint did.

Actually the Hellenistic Jews who would have been the ones reading the Septuagint were just as violent against the new faith as those in Jerusalem who would have adhered to the Hebrew text.

And let's think about it. If you want to find out if something is true, you would go to the source. The Bereans may have checked their Greek copy of the prophets to see if what Paul told them was true, but then being true Bereans, they would have then checked the Greek translation against the Hebrew text to make sure. Isn't that how you would do it?

11,257 posted on 03/06/2007 7:18:42 PM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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To: Uncle Chip
Could these variants be what Jesus referred to as "traditions that make the word of God of no effect".

There is no reason to believe or prove He was talking about the Septuagint. We do know, within the context, that He was assailing the practices based on man-made traditions of the Pharisees, and not of Scriptures.

they have to be seriously questioned, since that is believed to have been the place where things were discarded not stored. The Hebrew manuscript of Isaiah, for example, was preserved in a jar because it was valuable.

Why burry them rather than destroy them? The OT seems to suggest that your enemies, who are ungodly, be annihilated, children and live stock included. Why would ungodly writings be preserved?

They could have been there being sorted out, translated, or copied. Maybe they didn't have enough jars for all of them.

Actually the Hellenistic Jews who would have been the ones reading the Septuagint were just as violent against the new faith as those in Jerusalem

Of course. They did not buy into the new faith. The Septuagint does not teach a "new faith." The "new faith" came from the tachings of St. Paul. Christ was not executed for the "new faith" but for claiming that He is the Son of God (in other words, blaspheming). He was not accused of "new faith."

But "new faith" is the key word. Christianity ceased to be Judaism when St. Paul stepped on the stage, dropped circumcision and dietary laws. If anything was choregraphed for a seamless biblical text it was the New Testament, not the Old one.

Christians are to the Jews what Mormons are to the Christians. The "new faith" changed the whole concept of God, and Scriptures, in both cases. Just as one cannot be a Jew and a Christian, one cannot be a Christian and a Mormon, or a Christian and a Muslim.

11,258 posted on 03/07/2007 5:25:40 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: Uncle Chip
Most of the fragments are from the Pentateuch, and since they follow the Hebrew text very closely, they are evidence that the first five books may very well have been authoritatively translated

That seems to be one of those truisms many people repeat (like almah being mentioned only twice), but they are simply echoing someone else who hasn't read both source.

Here is a comparison from Genesis 4, v 7 (in Tanach it's verses 6 and 7).

7Have you not sinned if you have brought it rightly, but not rightly divided it? Be still, to you shall be his submission, and you shall rule over him.” [LXX] 6 And the Lord said to Cain, "Why are you annoyed, and why has your countenance fallen? 7 Is it not so that if you improve, it will be forgiven you? If you do not improve, however, at the entrance, sin is lying, and to you is its longing, but you can rule over it." [Tanach]

11,259 posted on 03/07/2007 6:03:19 AM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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