My Bible has all of the Synoptics being written before 70, but in any event, I don't see how it could be true that the Church in Israel was finished. In the broad sense, all of the Gospels were written to all believers. In the narrow view, the "alleged" Gospel of Matthew you speak of was written specifically to the Jews. (What would Gentiles do with multiple references to "Son of David"?) I think the Gospels were well balanced.
Thus, any translation into Greek of what Christ said in Aramaic or Hebrew was done by the authors of the New Testament, whom you believe to have written God's words and not their own, and therefore could not make a mistake; and if they quoted from the Septuagint, including situations found only in the so-called "Apocrypha," then your argument is with the inspired men, ...
Well, I don't think I've ever said that everything in the Apocrypha (or Deuterocanonicals, or whatever one wishes to call them) is automatically wrong. I just don't think they were inspired as individual works. That by itself would be enough to exclude them from scripture. (This is my understanding of Luther's position.) I'm not aware of any references to situations found only in the Apocrypha, but if there were, then depending on the context they could have been perfectly true. So as far as I know, I wouldn't have any cause to argue with any of the authors.
Then why would they be in Greek?
I don't see how it could be true that the Church in Israel was finished
The first Bishop and Patriarch of Jerusalem, +James the Just, was beheaded in 62 AD and the Church in Jerusalem was shut down by Romans in 69 AD. The Temple in Jerusalem was destroyed a year later, and Jews started leaving Palestine. Before that, the Christians were thrown out of the synagogues by the Jews, and hunted down by zealots like Saul.
+Paul, addressing the Jews says "It was necessary that the word of God be spoken to you first; since you repudiate it and judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life, behold, we are turning to the Gentiles" [Act 13:46]
In the broad sense, all of the Gospels were written to all believers
Then, I believe they would have followed the steps in which +Paul does "first the Jew then the Gentile" and naturally would have written the Gospels in Hebrew, and would have used Hebrew canon rather than the Septuagint.
I just don't think [the "Apocrypha"/OT Deuterocanonical books] were inspired as individual work
I have no issues with that, since you clearly state that this is you opinion.
I can even buy the excuse that the Septuagint became a "popular error" among the Jews of Palestine in the 1st century AD, but the Apostles were guided by the Holy Spirit. Asserting they used false or deficient Scripture denies their inspiration and authority.