Certainly. Scribes were inserting all sorts of things, making copying errors, etc.
Nope --- Get your facts straight. Beza's 1598 Greek Text was the foundation for the KJV New Testament.
You need to get your fact straight: between 80and 90% of the wording of the Geneva Bible is Tyndale's.
You have questioned everything so far without proving a single objection. Your major one was whether Erasmus's work involved retro-translation from Latin to Greek. It did. I have backed up everything I have said while you sit and wait for me to give you facts so that you can switch gears. Well, keep your seat.
Sounds like those Greek scribes who copied the Byzantine text of the NT were not as diligent as the Hebrew scribes who copied the Hebrew Text of the OT. The Orthodox should have hired the Jews to make copies, don't you think??? or maybe the scribes who copied the Byzantine Text accurately thoughout history were Jews, Christian Jews or Jewish Christians.
You need to get your fact straight: between 80and 90% of the wording of the Geneva Bible is Tyndale's.
But we're talking about the KJV not the Geneva Bible, and the KJV used Beza's 1598 Greek Text for its translation.
You have questioned everything so far without proving a single objection. Your major one was whether Erasmus's work involved retro-translation from Latin to Greek. It did. I have backed up everything I have said while you sit and wait for me to give you facts so that you can switch gears. Well, keep your seat.
Oh please, get a grip. We agree on much of what you have said. However you are overstating your case. Most of Erasmus's First Edition of the Greek Text came from Greek manuscripts and you know that because you have already provided a list of five of them and there were others besides those five. And he used other manuscripts to improve on that one for his Second Edition.
It is well known that he did have to translate the Vulgate back into the Greek for the latter part of the Book of Revelation in his first edition, but let's get real, to say that his entire translation was a retro-translation when only a few verses came from the Latin is an exaggeration of monstrous proportions. Anyway Jerome's Latin Vulgate, since it was based upon Alexandrian Texts, would not have translated back into the Byzantine Text of Erasmus' Greek Text, right??? So your "retro" theory falls flat on its face.
And the fact remains that Erasmus's Greek Text was improved upon, revised, corrected, confirmed by Stephanus and later Beza and it was Beza's 1598 Greek Text that was used by KJV translators for their English NT.
You guys yap about "tradition" but the fact remains that the Byzantine Text that underlies the KJV is the traditional text of the Orthodox Church which the Greek scribes and monks knew and transmitted and sent to the West --- a fact of history that the modern day Orthodox seem to have ignored in their disdain for those big bad Protestants.
You haven't answered my question: Just when did the Orthodox Church abandon the Byzantine Text [also known as the Antiochian Text] and adopt the Codex Alexandrinus Text for their scriptures with the Byzantine text in the Gospels but the Alexandrian Text for the Epistles and Acts???. Could you search that out for me and tell me what Church Council made that decision and when???
We know that the Roman Church decided upon Jerome's Latin Vulgate for its official Bible, and that the Council of Jamnia fixed the Hebrew Text that was used by Origen, Jerome, and the Masoretes, but just when did the Greek Orthodox officially adopt Codex Alexandrinus as its official bible???? When was that???