[adiaireton8]

Oh please. You've offered no support for either interpretations and you haven't specified which one you are arguing.

I am the one who has asked a question, so I don't have to offer support for anything. I asked a question: How can we know now with certainty that we are elect for glory. You answered by appealing to Col 3:12, which says, "Therefore, as the elect of God, holy and beloved, put on tender feelings of mercy . . . .". I asked how you knew that the term 'elect' there referred to "election to glory". You responded by saying that you don't see any distinction in Scripture between "election for glory" and "election for grace". I replied by showing that it would only follow that there is no such distinction if you are an infallible interpreter of Scripture. Otherwise, your not seeing something in Scripture would not entail that it isn't in Scripture. If you have missed the distinction in Scripture between election for glory and election for grace, then your justification for believing that Col 3:12 shows you to be elect for glory is undermined. So your justification for believing that this verse shows you to be elect for glory depends upon a prior assumption, namely, that you are an infallible interpreter of Scripture. And therefore, that just backs up my original question to the following question: How do you know that you are an infallible interpreter of Scripture?

-A8

[HarleyD]

I didn't understand a word that you've posted and I read it three times. Here is just a snip:

I replied by showing that it would only follow that there is no such distinction if you are an infallible interpreter of Scripture. Otherwise, your not seeing something in Scripture would not entail that it isn't in Scripture. If you have missed the distinction in Scripture between election for glory and election for grace, then your justification for believing that Col 3:12 shows you to be elect for glory is undermined.

No offense but I've tried to parse this and couldn't follow the logic. Do you work for Newadvent by chance?

You responded by saying that you don't see any distinction in Scripture between "election for glory" and "election for grace".

I never said any such thing. I said you are posting two different versions, using the same word with different meanings. Either elect means one thing or another. It can't mean both. I gave you a choice for defining the words; you have yet to do so. To make this simple:

What is the definition of election?

What is the definition of faith?

I would suggest you are simply changing the definition to suit your fancy.

[Dr. Eckleburg]

I am the one who has asked a question, so I don't have to offer support for anything.

LOLOL.

"Hell and destruction are never full; so the eyes of man are never satisfied." -- Proverbs 27:20