To: OLD REGGIE
You seem to be assuming that if any bishop (other than the bishop of Rome) has authority, then the bishop of Rome does not have primacy. That's a non sequitur.
-A8
147 posted on
11/18/2006 10:04:19 AM PST by
adiaireton8
("There is no greater evil one can suffer than to hate reasonable discourse." - Plato, Phaedo 89d)
To: adiaireton8
You seem to be assuming that if any bishop (other than the bishop of Rome) has authority, then the bishop of Rome does not have primacy. That's a non sequitur.
-A8
You seem to be assuming the Bishop of Rome had primacy beyond the Western Church. He did not. The Bishop of Rome could not unilaterrly appoint Bishops for the Estern Churches. The "Primacy" of Rome came much later.
148 posted on
11/18/2006 11:39:18 AM PST by
OLD REGGIE
(I am most likely a Biblical Unitarian? Let me be perfectly clear. I know nothing.)
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