The name for the area around Jerusalem during the first century was Judea. Previously it had been called "Judah". There were two kingdoms of Israelites after King David [I Kings 12:19-20]. The northern Kingdom called Israel and the southern Kingdom called Judah. These two kingdoms were frequently at war against each other and the first place in your Bible where the word Jew is mentioned is in II Kings 16:1-6. The Jews are at war against Israel.
Israel was taken captive [II Kings 17:6](721 B.C.) and only Judah [II Kings 17:18] remained....the Jews. You can also see this distinction between the two kingdoms in II Chronicles 11:1. The Jews later on (120 years) were taken captive themselves to Babylon....but they came back. The northern Kingdom never returned from their captivity. You can read about it in the Books of Ezra and Nehemiah. You will notice that only the tribes of Judah, Benjamin and their share of the priestly tribe of Levi are mentioned.
So, to answer your question now that you have the background....Yes, you may say that the word Judean is interchangeable with the word Israelite. Bottom line....all Jews (Judeans) are Israelites but not all Israelites are Jews. Much the same as all Californians are Americans but not all Americans are Californians.
I understand that the first time the word Jew was used was when Bible was translated and printed in English. I think both the Douay-Rheims and the St. James bibles were translated into English at about the same time. Evidently there was great difficulty with the word Judeans since there was no J in Greek or Hebrew and so to simplify matters they came up with the word Jew rather than the clumsy to pronounce, Iudiceans.(Or something close)Do you have any information on that?