The argument you give here is a question-begging argument in that it assumes that the Catholic Church's interpretation is "so far removed" from the orthodox interpretation, rather than assuming that it is your own interpretation that is so far removed from the orthodox interpretation. If the Catholic bishops have Magesterial authority, then they are the ones who determine what is the orthodox interpretation, not you. That's why your argument is question-begging; it assumes what you are trying to prove, i.e. that Catholic bishops do not have the authority to determine the orthodox interpretation of Scripture.
-A8