The wrath here spoken of by Jesus in Revelation is after the tribulation period, after the millennial rein, the devil will be set loose. We were speaking of the tribulation period and the wrath of God period prior to the 2nd coming. Jesus in Rev 2:22 will place them in a bed that will result in tribulation it does not say that He will cause the tribulation.
Hmmm, that's an interesting parsing of words. Let's look at it again:
"Indeed I will cast her into a sickbed, and those who commit adultery with her into great tribulation, unless they repent of their deeds."
I cannot see how your interpretation is allowed unless I first adopt your presuppositions about the distinction in question. IOW, I have to accept the thing being proved as true in order to understand the steps in the proof. Not a very good method.
But it plainly, "literally" speaks ot the wrath of Satan. And it also is plainly, "literally" speaking of the tribulation of Christ. The only way to arrive at what you want is to impose another meaning on the words. Thus the quite arbitrary distinction between tribulation and wrath in this alleged future seven-year "great tribuation" period.