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To: fortheDeclaration; xzins; HarleyD; Gamecock; Dr. Eckleburg
For the first four centuries of Christianity no one used the word Predestination the way Augustine did.

No one is denying progress in theological understanding within the church. The difference is that Augustinian and later developments were squarely based on the Bible.

Modern dispensationalists pulled their definition out of thin air, e.g., "A dispensation is a period of time during which man is tested in respect to his obedience to some specific revelation of the will of God" per CI Scofield.

Modern dispensationalists, at least the ones hanging around here, have tried to make some identification between the early church fathers and modern dispensationalists based on the simple fact that they both used the same word.

That has been demonstrated to be patently untrue.

191 posted on 09/18/2006 6:47:54 AM PDT by topcat54
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To: topcat54; fortheDeclaration

Hardly.

Dispensation has been shown to be a word that comes from the stewardship/administration of an enterprise or other area of responsibility.

That's what it means biblically. That's how it's used in each instance.


193 posted on 09/18/2006 7:00:57 AM PDT by xzins (Retired Army Chaplain and proud of it! Supporting our troo This means praying for them to WIN!)
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