I'm not sure if it is 2/3 of the Jews in particular or 2/3 of the inhabitants of the land in General.
The Bible does make specific reference to 2/3 of those in the land.
I believe the prophecy deals with the inhabitants of the land, does it not? FWIW, the promised land extends from the mediterranian sea to the Euphrates river, north to Damascus and South to the Nile.
I suspect that God could kill off 2/3 of the inhabitants of the land described as the land of Israel in the Bible and not kill off a single Jew (or Christian).
Is that what it literally says? Why are you so reluctant to say what many of your dispensationalist friends teach to be true, that 2/3 of the Jews living in the land during the future "great tribulation" will be killed off, even while still in their unbelief?
FWIW, the promised land extends from the mediterranian sea to the Euphrates river, north to Damascus and South to the Nile.
Is this an admission that modern Israel does not occupy all the land promised to Abraham?
Has Israel ever literally occupied all the land "from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates"?