[P-Marlowe]

Is that what it literally says? Why are you so reluctant to say what many of your dispensationalist friends teach to be true, that 2/3 of the Jews living in the land during the future "great tribulation" will be killed off, even while still in their unbelief?

I don't have immediate access to my Larsen Charts, so I'm not sure which prophecy we are talking about. It is my understanding that 2/3 of the inhabitants of the land of Israel (which according to GOD is the land from the Nile to the Euphrates and North to Damascus) will be killed at some point. I don't think it says that 2/3 of the Jews will be killed. Do you have the exact scripture so that we can see whether or not it refers to Jews?

Is this an admission that modern Israel does not occupy all the land promised to Abraham?

Obviously.

Has Israel ever literally occupied all the land "from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates"?

According to God all that land IS the land of Israel. Whether or not it is or was inhabited by the Israelites is irrelevant. According to God all that land is included in the promise.

[topcat54]

Do you have the exact scripture so that we can see whether or not it refers to Jews?

Zechariah 13.

"Has Israel ever literally occupied all the land "from the river of Egypt unto the great river, the river Euphrates"?"

According to God all that land IS the land of Israel. Whether or not it is or was inhabited by the Israelites is irrelevant. According to God all that land is included in the promise.

That wasn't my question. My question was has Israel ever "literally" occupied all the land outlined in that promise?