When was Paul celibate? Before or after God came upon him? And what does that have to do with first Timothy?
Since St. Paul was still named Saul and a persecutor of Christians before God came upon him, it follows that he wrote 1 Corinthians after God came upon him. Since he refers to his celibate state in that letter in the present tense, it follows that he was celibate after God came upon him as well.
In fact, in writing 1 Corinthians, St. Paul was acting in his capacity as bishop. Therefore, he was simultaneously celibate and a bishop.
It follows that your interpretation of 1 Timothy, that celibacy is incompatible with the office of bishop, is erroneous. For 1 Corinthians shows that St. Paul was both celibate and a bishop simultaneously. St. Paul is the counter-example which disproves your thesis. I have provided an interpretation which reconciles 1 Corinthians and 1 Timothy. You have not. You must do so, or you must argue that Scripture may contradict itself. But self-contration is error, and Scripture, being inspired by the infallible Holy Spirit cannot contain error. Therefore, that line of argument is closed to you as well.