[NYer]

How about her perpetual virginity? Sinlessness? Where's that in the Bible?

Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus.

Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you "will" conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, "How shall this be?" Mary's response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

[Invincibly Ignorant]

Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus.

Talk about shameless use of Hebrew Scriptures. This takes the cake.

[nmh]

"Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus."

HUH? In NO way shape or form does

Ezek 44:2

[2] Then said the LORD unto me; This gate shall be shut, it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter in by it; because the LORD, the God of Israel, hath entered in by it, therefore it shall be shut.

Have ANYTHING to do with MARY!!! That's insane to suggest that! That is such a leap - it's totally ridiculous!

"Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you "will" conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, "How shall this be?" Mary's response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

Luke 1:31

[31] And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.

Nothing about permanent virginity here.

Luke 1:34

[34] Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

And nothing about Mary being a perpetual virgin here!

Mary is questioning HOW she could be pregnant since she has NOT had sex with a man. She conceived with the help of the Holy Spirit. There is absolutely NOTHING about being a perpetual virgin stated here or even HINTED AT. NOTHING. It's rather straight forward what's going on here.

She took NO VOWS of VIRGINITY. No where does she state that or is it required by anyone. You have been fooled. Simply READ what she stated. There are NO hidden innuendos here. Her question makes perfect sense when she has NOT slept with a man. If I were her, I'd be asking too - how can I conceive when I haven't had sex with a man.

You're way off base on this one!


This is not an "interpretation issue". It's a reading and comprehension problem, by choice. Clearly it does NOT state what you chose to believe.

[nmh]

"Ezek. 44:2 - Ezekiel prophesies that no man shall pass through the gate by which the Lord entered the world. This is a prophecy of Mary's perpetual virginity. Mary remained a virgin before, during and after the birth of Jesus."

HUH? In NO way shape or form does

Ezek 44:2

[2] Then said the LORD unto me; This gate shall be shut, it shall not be opened, and no man shall enter in by it; because the LORD, the God of Israel, hath entered in by it, therefore it shall be shut.

Have ANYTHING to do with MARY!!! That's insane to suggest that! That is such a leap - it's totally ridiculous!

"Luke 1:31,34 - the angel tells Mary that you "will" conceive (using the future tense). Mary responds by saying, "How shall this be?" Mary's response demonstrates that she had taken a vow of lifelong virginity by having no intention to have relations with a man. If Mary did not take such a vow of lifelong virginity, her question would make no sense at all (for we can assume she knew how a child is conceived). She was a consecrated Temple virgin as was an acceptable custom of the times.

Luke 1:31

[31] And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.

Nothing about permanent virginity here.

Luke 1:34

[34] Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?

And nothing about Mary being a perpetual virgin here!

Mary is questioning HOW she could be pregnant since she has NOT had sex with a man. She conceived with the help of the Holy Spirit. There is absolutely NOTHING about being a perpetual virgin stated here or even HINTED AT. NOTHING. It's rather straight forward what's going on here.

She took NO VOWS of VIRGINITY. No where does she state that or is it required by anyone. You have been fooled. Simply READ what she stated. There are NO hidden innuendos here. Her question makes perfect sense when she has NOT slept with a man. If I were her, I'd be asking too - how can I conceive when I haven't had sex with a man.

You're way off base on this one!


This is not an "interpretation issue". It's a reading and comprehension problem, by choice. Clearly it does NOT state what you chose to believe.