I do not know. But I *do* know that He breathed *this name for Peter* in Aramaic, which is all that's at issue here. This is proved by John 1:42 which says that Petros is a translation of Cephas and not the other way around. This argument is not built on some historical theory, but on the infallible word of God.
117 posted on 06/09/2006 9:04:34 AM MDT by Claud
John 1:42 He brought him to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said,
Do you mean John 1:42?
as in;
"You are Simon the son of John; you shall be called Cephas" (which is translated Peter).
small pebble
see :
1 Co 1:12b'shem Y'shua
1 Co 3:22
1 Co 9:5
1 Co 15:5
Gal 1:18
Gal 2:9
Gal 2:11
Gal 2:14
Yes I do. And I already agreed with the fact that Petros/petra were distinct usages in some forms of Greek. We are well beyond that point in the conversation now.
But that point is moot because John 1:42 states clearly that Jesus called Simon Cephas which was then translated into Petros.