To: armydoc
"These methods have in common with NFP the deliberate thwarting of the procreative ideal. Why the inconsistency?" There is no inconsistency. Church dogma says that every sex act between husband and wife should be "open to procreation". In NFP, the couple abstains from sexual activity during fertile periods. If there is no sex act, there is no sin. On the other hand, if there "is" a sex act, and it is NOT "open to procreation", then there is sin.
41 posted on
05/12/2006 10:12:32 AM PDT by
Wonder Warthog
(The Hog of Steel-NRA)
To: Wonder Warthog
On the other hand, if there "is" a sex act, and it is NOT "open to procreation", then there is sin.
A sex act performed with NFP or artifical BC is "open to procreation" proportional to the method's failure rate. NFP, performed properly, has a 2-10% failure rate. Condoms have a 15% failure rate. Thus, it could be argued that sex using a condom is more "open to procreation" than NFP. On the other hand, sex between a couple in which the woman had a hysterectomy for health reasons is not at all "open to procreation". Sinful?
44 posted on
05/12/2006 10:43:11 AM PDT by
armydoc
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