[tenn2005]

Besides, can you show me anywhere in the GOSPELS where Christ re-baptized any of those who had John's Baptism? Remember, John's Baptism was for REMISSION OF SIN, precisely what you say Mark 16:16 is about.<

Contest, context, context.

John himself distinguished between his baptish and New Testament Bapism (See Matt 3:11). John's Baptism was "unto remission of sin," wheras Christian baptism is "for remission of sin" (Acts 2:38). Jesus, in his lifetime, baptized "unto remission of sin", just as John Did.

New Testament baptism only became possible after the death of Jesus on the cross (Rom 6:3-4). That is why Paul rebaptized those who had only received the baptism of John.

[Ruy Dias de Bivar]

****John's Baptism was "unto remission of sin," wheras Christian baptism is "for remission of sin" (Acts 2:38). Jesus, in his lifetime, baptized "unto remission of sin", just as John Did. *****

You don't say! Context! Context!

Mar 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance FOR the remission of sins.

Luk 3:3 And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance FOR the remission of sins;