What I was referring to when I spoke of the Church keeping holy writ in languages that were not available to the masses, I was not referring to the first two centuries, I was trgrtting to the centuries from roughly.. what.. 700a.d (or earlier?) until the Reformation. I think you were aware of that, but I will choose to think that perhaps we each misunderstood where the other was coming from. The fact is, a vast portion of the territory presided over by the RCC throughout the course of it's history did NOT speak latin nor hebrew. The RCC forbade translation into those languages and kept the vast majority of the masses in ignorance.
Your hits keep on coming. Where do you get this stuff?
Please read my previous reply to Hodar on this tripe.