2 Timothy 3 16 All scripture is inspired by God and is useful for teaching, for refutation, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 so that one who belongs to God may be competent, equipped for every good work.
Take note in the above quoted text, from the KJV, that scripture is with the lower case "scripture" instead of the upper case "Scripture". When in lower case, it refers literally to ALL scriptures or writings.. only when it is upper case, does it specifically mean Holy Writings. Further, if Christ HAD been referring to Holy Script, then he would not have been referring to ANY books of what are now the New Testament, nor to anything called "The Bible" since they did not exist in his lifetime.
Those books which are included in the Bible were decided by MEN. The Church itself readily explains why the book of Thomas, which being written closest to the time of Christ makes many theologians suspect it to be the most accurate Gospel, was left out. A single phrase, which quotes Christ as saying...
"Jesus said: I am the light that is above them all. I am the all; the all came forth from me, and the all attained to me. Cleave a (piece of) wood; I am there. Raise up a stone, and you will find me there." (My emphasis added)
The Church interpreted this phrase as meaning one could find Christ wherever one sought him, and that one did not need the Church to be your intermediary. They viewed this phrase as a threat to the authority of the Church, thus rejected the book. I dunno about you, but I am not putting my faith in men, especially when what they are preaching is self serving.
It's easy to see why Christians would view those passages as promoting pantheism rather than Christianity.