To: Donald Meaker
And BTW - isn't the word used in Isaiah 'almah? The Septuagint translates that as parqenoV. Which is the version of the OT that Jesus Himself would have used . . .
10 posted on
03/10/2006 7:09:43 PM PST by
AnAmericanMother
(Ministrix of Ye Chase, TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary (recess appointment))
To: AnAmericanMother
So, you assert that Jesus spoke Greek? Usually people assert that he read Hebrew, and spoke Aramaic.
72 posted on
03/12/2006 4:07:39 PM PST by
Donald Meaker
(You don't drive a car looking through the rear view mirror, but you do practice politics that way.)
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