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To: jo kus
I'm a Bible Believer. "These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so." Acts 17:11

So WHY were the Bereans more noble than the Thessalonicans? What does it say above? Because they accepted the Word while the Thessalonicans did NOT. They weren't more noble BECAUSE they looked in the Old Testament. They were more noble because they believed. This verse is the most over-used verse of Scripture that I have ever seen that doesn't prove anything that Protestants want it to ...

Regards


Actually, the text says that the Berean (Jews) were more noble because they readily received the Word and searched the scriptures daily.

Sounds like a process which ultimately led them to belief.
Acts 17:10 And the brethren immediately sent away Paul and Silas by night unto Berea: who coming thither went into the synagogue of the Jews.

11 These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.

12 Therefore many of them believed; also of honourable women which were Greeks, and of men, not a few.

700 posted on 02/16/2006 1:20:50 PM PST by Quester
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To: Quester
Actually, the text says that the Berean (Jews) were more noble because they readily received the Word and searched the scriptures daily.

Brother, then can't we presume that the Thessalonicans ALSO searched the Scriptures? We can presume that they did, correct? Consider that Paul first went to the synagogue in every case when he evangelized. Thus, we can presume that it wasn't the Scripture that determined whether the Word was accepted, as BOTH the Thessalonicans AND the Bereans would have likely searched the Scriptures, trying to determine the validity of Paul's Gospel, that was scandalous to the Jews and foolishness to the Greeks.

The point is that is wasn't the mere searching that made them noble! It was their acceptance of the Word. Is that agreeable? This is why I believe this verse is overused and doesn't prove in any way Sola Scriptura.

Regards

723 posted on 02/16/2006 3:30:19 PM PST by jo kus
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