So, you are saying that Jesus did not speak Aramaic? What else do you deny about Him?
287 posted on 02/15/2006 5:28:22 PM MST by NYer
Your whole spin about Peter and the Rock is based on the spin that The clear reading of the Holy Word of G-d demonstrates that This Aramaic spin denies that the Ruach haKodesh intentionally breathed I'm sure the king of the universe can do anything He wants to do.
b'shem Y'shua
Y'shua did not know that He was the Holy Word of G-d
and that He only spoke Aramaic.
Y'shua at the age of 12 could read and speak Hebrew.
As He did in the Temple in Jerusalem with the Priests.
the New Testament in Koine Greek for us to understand the mind of G-d
Why do you refer to the Gospel as spin?
Look, He *could* have spoken Inuit and Swahili if He felt like it. The point that NYer was making is that Jesus spoke Aramaic to His hearers because that is the language THEY spoke. Don't be obscurantist to make debating points. He also surely spoke Koine, as many people in the eastern Mediterranean did so as a second language. He also likely employed some Latin. But, inasmuch as He "grew in wisdom and knowledge before God and man" (Luke 2:52), one can glean from this that His human intellect, stemming from His human soul, was obliged to "learn" separate from His divine nature. How this was so is a mystery. But it is part of the explanation of what St. Paul says of Him: "Though he was in the form of God, He did not count equality with God something to be grasped, but emptied Himself and took on the form of a slave, being born in the likeness of men. And being found in human form He humbled Himself and became obedient unto death, even death on a cross." Philippians 2:6-8
Getting back to the point, Jesus spoke Aramaic when teaching the people. In Aramaic, the "Rock" of Matthew 16:18 is the same word - Kepha - in BOTH of the instances where it appears in that verse. To appeal to the differences in the Greek is not compelling, even aside from the easily explainable reason for those differences linguistically and stylistically: namely, "petra" had to be changed to "Petros" because no male would be given a name that was a feminine noun in gender. The tortured explanations you must undertake for the syntax of this perfectly understandable sentence would be amusing if they were not so sadly misleading people in a rather important doctrine of Christ.
Did Jesus speak Aramaic or not? It's a simple question. Yes or No.