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To: Full Court
Dave, you have ignored clear Scripture saying that Mary and Joseph had sex, and the Greek behind that.

Don't be ridiculous. You have steadfastly refused to engage in a discussion about what the words could mean.

I repeat for the third time. Can you answer?

Is there any possiblity whatsoever, in your own understanding of your own understanding, that you could be mistaken? Or have you reached fallibility in this area based upon the plain English meaning of words? Can your mind perceive the distinction between what you think a passage means and what the author of the passage actually meant to convey?

So don't send me melodramatic posts asking me if I am proud of myself for "ignoring" Scripture.

I guess self-awareness is just something that happens to other people, eh?

Not to mention the fact that you have ignored all the other Scripture saying that Jesus had siblings.

No. You have ignored any evidence presented that the word you take to mean "co-uteral sibling" can have a broader meaning.

SD

1,915 posted on 02/27/2006 6:28:04 AM PST by SoothingDave
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To: SoothingDave
You have steadfastly refused to engage in a discussion about what the words could mean.

Dave, the Greek is the idiom for sex between a man and a woman. What else could that possibly mean?

There is no reason at all to look for another meaning when that one is perfectly clear. It follows every rule of Biblical interpretation.

1,956 posted on 02/27/2006 9:39:44 AM PST by Full Court (Keepers at home, do you think it's optional?)
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