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To: Titanites
If Mary and Joseph could mutually abstain from coming together for more than 40 days before the birth of Jesus, they could certainly do so after.Matthew 1:24  Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

25  And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

And there was no reason at all for Mary to have sinned by with holding sex from Joseph.

Hebrews 13:4  Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

1 Corinthians 7:5  Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency.

Why would Mary or all people of placed her husband or herself in a position to be tempted by Satan?

1,750 posted on 02/25/2006 3:15:25 PM PST by Full Court (Keepers at home, do you think it's optional?)
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To: Full Court
1 Corinthians 7:5 Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency.

Why would Mary or all people of placed her husband or herself in a position to be tempted by Satan?


What if Joseph chose to be celibate as well? Are you saying he could not withstand the temptations of the devil?

Why do you denigrate Joseph?

PS - Don't you love these little "Do you still beat your wife" asides we're throwing back and forth? Do you dislike them as much as we do when you throw them at us?
1,756 posted on 02/25/2006 3:23:51 PM PST by Conservative til I die
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To: Full Court
And there was no reason at all for Mary to have sinned by with holding sex from Joseph.

And now we're back to where we started. Do you read what is posted to you? Mutually agreeing to not have sex is not a sin. You can go through the whole cycle of posts again, like you are prone to do, but you have no proof that mutally agreeing to not have sex is a sin.

Why would Mary or all people of placed her husband or herself in a position to be tempted by Satan?

You assume Mary was withholding sex from Joseph, who requested it. You assume Mary and Joseph could not make a mutual agreement to not have sex. You assume that Mary and Joseph had no self control. By your question, you must assume that Mary did not abstain from sex before the birth of Jesus.

1,765 posted on 02/25/2006 4:21:50 PM PST by Titanites (Happy are those who are called to His supper.)
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