Wouldn't a teaching by a Pope that came along some time after a teaching from a previous Pope take precident? So, if Pope Bonaface says one must be Roman Catholic and submit to the Roman Pontiff's authority and JPII comes along some centruies later and says via his imprimatur on the Catechism, that people of good will who of no fault of their own are ignorant of the gospel can be saved, wouldn't JPII's statement take precedent according to Catholic Tradition?
In principle, isn't it like the rule on fasting on Fridays? That was the rule for ages until Pope Paul changed it via Vatican II.
Rob