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To: asformeandformyhouse

The word in greek isn't adultry it's pornea and it means sexual immorality. There's a wealth of things which could constitute that. In fact Christ didn't even use the common greek word for adultry, which is a different word, he quite specifically used pornea.


11 posted on 02/03/2006 1:43:13 PM PST by x5452
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To: x5452
Christ spoke Aramaic not Greek. However, I can see the 'pornea' argument and will concede that possibility.

But where does 'pornea' even begin to include where someone just gets tired of their spouse and wants a divorce? That is the situation that I often see for anullments here.

14 posted on 02/03/2006 1:45:53 PM PST by asformeandformyhouse (Go Steelers!!!)
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