Sorry but I don’t think you really expected me to respond to a long cut and paste of something that didn’t directly address the issue raised, did you? As for your reply, it has so many errors of interpretation in it and things out of context that one hardly knows where to start. For example, let’s just mention one which comes up in your first two sentences. You mention Matthew 5:14 and intone that this verse which mentions a ‘city that is set on an hill cannot be hid’ is referring to his church. You may have a point if you are using the broader meaning of the church as ‘the assembly of Christ’s true believers’ but as far as assuming that this is by any means referring to the Catholic Church where the word catholic means anything other than being synonymous with universal, I’d say you are totally off base. Verse 14 by the way comes after the passage that contains the beatitudes and related verses that uses the words ‘they, their(S), ye, your and yours (KJV) in every verse from 3 to 13 and even in the first part of 14 which states ‘Ye are the light of the world’. Do you think that these words refer to the church? Or were they meant to be absorbed and applied on an internalized individual basis?
Maybe you can clear something up for me. I believe the Bible is God’s Word and is infallible. I’m assuming that you believe the same. You also believe that the teachings of the Catholic church are infallible I assume. So, if these teachings come in conflict with each other, how is that rationalized? Two things that are both infallible but can’t be harmonized? They both can’t be right. Let me give one example. The church believes that sins can be forgiven by confession before a priest whereas scripture is quite clear on this: 1 Timothy 2:4 ‘Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; 6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.’ So which is infallible?