Well maybe. In Acts, it says he "having fallen down headlong, burst in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out". Doesn't say he fell from the rope. Doesn't say how he fell headlong, but nothing about hanging.
What about Matthew 27:5?
There *is* such a thing known as "harmonization of Scripture passages," you know. The Gospel account in Matthew 27:5 is entirely unambiguous: he "went and hanged himself." Both that and the verse from Acts 1:18 that you cite are *equally* inspired. In this case, they are not even seemingly contradictory, and the harmonization is easy. He hanged himself, the rope broke (or the thing he attached the rope to broke), and he plummeted to earth, where his "bowels gushed out." Whether he was still alive or already dead when this happened isn't stated, but that is of no importance to the question here. He *clearly* had the intention of killing himself via hanging. Neither account contradicts the possibility, while one states it emphatically.
If I told you that I went on a trip to Europe and visited Paris, does that in itself *deny* that I may have also visited Rome and any number of other places? Of course not. I just didn't happen to give an exhaustive accounting of my trip to you. But you can hardly say that the omission "proves" that I didn't go anywhere besides Paris. Omission is not denial.
Judas ABSOLUTELY hanged himself. At some point, his body fell to earth and burst open. End of story.