To: frgoff
"Um, because it's a translation, and Joseph Smith decided to use King James English when he did the translating. Sheesh."
Sheesh?
Sweetheart, Smith claimed an angel of God and God and Jesus gave him this word in 1840 in some town in upstate New York.
Why would God speak to Joseph Smith in King James English seven hundred years after that language had died?
175 posted on
01/03/2006 11:55:50 AM PST by
Californiajones
("The apprehension of beauty is the cure for apathy" - Thomas Aquinas)
To: Californiajones
There was only about 230 years between the two works, just for the sake of accuracy. You would have trouble recognizing the English of 700 years earlier than 1840s as English...That would be the English of King Harold, not King James...
183 posted on
01/03/2006 12:22:02 PM PST by
Knitting A Conundrum
(Act Justly, Love Mercy, and Walk Humbly With God Micah 6:8)
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson