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To: Forest Keeper; 1000 silverlings; HarleyD; Full Court; jo kus; Kolokotronis; kosta50
This [that Mary was married shortly after the Annunciation] DIRECTLY contradicts the Protoevangelium of James

If it did, that would not be a big deal since the Protoevangelium is not canonical, and the timing of the wedding is not a dogma of the Church. But there is no contradiction: the Protoevangelium does not describe the wedding at all, it merely mentions that the priest did not know of the wedding at the time Mary was noticeably pregnant.

How in the world does Luke "STRESS" Mary's intention of remaining a virgin. She asks how she can become pregnant since "I am a virgin"

To say, "I am a virgin" indeed does not stress any intention about the future, but to say "I know not man and therefore cannot become pregnant in the future, contrary to your prediction" very much stresses the intention, and the latter is what Luke effectively saying in 1:34.

7,192 posted on 05/25/2006 3:16:07 PM PDT by annalex
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To: annalex
FK: "This [that Mary was married shortly after the Annunciation] DIRECTLY contradicts the Protoevangelium of James."

If it did, that would not be a big deal since the Protoevangelium is not canonical, and the timing of the wedding is not a dogma of the Church.

Then how is someone to know which parts of the Protoevangelium are true, and which parts are not true?

But there is no contradiction: the Protoevangelium does not describe the wedding at all, it merely mentions that the priest did not know of the wedding at the time Mary was noticeably pregnant.

The contradiction was in the stated plan that the marriage take place so as to ensure that no one would suspect illicit activity of the part of Joseph. The Protoevangelium clearly does address that with the opposite result. Joseph was forced to give an accounting after an accusation.

To say, "I am a virgin" indeed does not stress any intention about the future, but to say "I know not man and therefore cannot become pregnant in the future, contrary to your prediction" very much stresses the intention, and the latter is what Luke effectively saying in 1:34.

The KJV says "Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?". That is a huge difference. The NAB says "But Mary said to the angel, "How can this be, since I have no relations with a man?". It's the same thing. Mary was making no such pronouncement about her future intentions, she simply proffered her (then) chastity.

7,320 posted on 05/29/2006 7:36:38 PM PDT by Forest Keeper
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