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To: kosta50
It is difficult to believe that Jesus, Who was a pious Jew, would have reversed it [the order of the Eucharist]. Perhaps the Gospel writers decided to do so to distinguish Christian "Eucharist" from the Jewish custom.

If the Gospel writers were free to make changes this significant, then the Bible is not inspired. It is a work of fiction. Another explanation could be that Jesus did reverse the order because it was "in remembrance of Him". From then on, they would remember Jesus uniquely every time they partook.

7,090 posted on 05/23/2006 10:55:19 PM PDT by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper
Another explanation could be that Jesus did reverse the order because it was "in remembrance of Him". From then on, they would remember Jesus uniquely every time they partook

One, that's pure speculation, although a "soothing one," and, two, it doesn't explain why the first century Christians in Didache reversed Christ's reversal, or why would they want to!

You are dismissing those Christians who lived in the time when Apostles still walked the earth. Could it be, perhaps, that it was because the Gospels were still being written at that time?

I would wager on that possibility, although it is not as "soothing" as your speculation. After all, the Gospels seem oblivious to Peter's Epistles and vice versa.

7,097 posted on 05/24/2006 3:29:15 AM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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