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To: HarleyD; Agrarian; annalex
... it seems to me that under Jewish law, once you were engaged you were consider married-just not consummated until the wedding night. If a person wanted to break the vow[s] before the consummation process, it required a certificate of divorce. Thus Joseph had to "put her away quietly". Joseph couldn't just call off the engagement. I don't have my reference books but if anyone can shed light on this I would appreciate any corrections or updates.

I checked several websites, both Catholic and Protestant, and the consensus was what you are saying here. The only way to break a betrothal would have been for Joseph to issue a bill of divorce, following standard Jewish law. So, having a case of cold feet would not have been good enough, but fornication/adultery would have been a sufficient reason. This explains the language in verse 19, i.e. they had not had the marriage ceremony yet.

6,930 posted on 05/20/2006 12:36:43 PM PDT by Forest Keeper
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To: Forest Keeper; HarleyD; Agrarian
The only way to break a betrothal would have been for Joseph to issue a bill of divorce

Yes.

7,195 posted on 05/25/2006 3:57:03 PM PDT by annalex
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