What does that have to do with Isaiah?
The difference is that her potential sin was wiped off before she could commit any.
Why, that sound almost Calvinistic. Too bad God doesn't do it for everyone. ;O)
Just a question of interest, do we have a "potential" to sin and if we have a potential to sin, why does God allow us to sin? Did God take away Mary's free will when He took away her potential to sin?
Very good question.
In Romans 5 there is a discourse about the sin of Adam, which is also often cited as a prooftext that absolutely, scouts' honor, everyone has sinned. Bottom line, Paul did not write for prooftexts, and we don't read the scripture that way. You look at the overall message. Otherwise, the inspired authors would have written like modern lawyers with clauses and subclauses.
do we have a "potential" to sin and if we have a potential to sin, why does God allow us to sin? Did God take away Mary's free will when He took away her potential to sin?
That potential to sin is called Orginal Sin. No, remittance of original sin, ordinarily achieved through baptism, does not remove the free will. Proof is Adam and Eve before the Fall, who acted on their free will, e.g. by naming the animals, and of course, committing the sin.