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John 17:9 is not refering to individual predestination, but to the People of God, the community of people that Christ came to establish, which was to include Gentiles. The same can be said for John 10. Jesus did not come to give individual salvation to scattered invisible believers, but to His People gathered together in a visible community. This should be obvious from His formation of 12 Apostles, symbolic of the original People of God.

Christ's death was sufficient for all, but efficacious only for the elect whom God has given Christ to redeem.

As I said before, I agree with this general statement, although I am positive we mean different things by it. God gives sufficient saving grace to all men, but only some will utilize it for their own salvation - which would make it efficacious.

Christ's death did not make salvation possible; His death saves. It saves only those who believe, who repent of turning from Christ. It is OFFERED to men in different manners. Christ's did not only preach to those who "would" believe Him as decreed by God before time began! He didn't die for only those men who were previously decreed to turn to Him. Otherwise, you are saying God positively sends people to hell and is thus the Creator of sin. I cannot consider that as a Christian teaching.

Man-centered philosophies will always tell you that His work is incomplete and variable and in need of augmentation by other men and institutions.

Rhetoric. God died for the sin of all men, but all men will not be saved. If God desires all men to be saved, then there is something else in the formula that is missing - and that would be man's response to God's grace...

You didn't answer my question earlier. Did Christ die for your sins, or not, jo kus?

Christ died for ALL men's sins - so I would be included, correct?

Regards