Hmmmm, Job comes to mind...and Judges 9:23, and 1 Sam 16:14, and 1 Sam 16:15, and 1 Sam 16:16, and 1 Sam 18:10, and 1 Sam 19:19, and 1 Kings 22:23, and 2 Chron 18:22. (Notice how they are all from the Old testament, by coincidence I am sure).
I read all of your verses. Only the last two, which are the same, are even arguably relevant to this topic. But even those fail. First of all, Ahab was warned about the false prophecies of his prophets by Micaiah, therefore nothing terrible (sinful) happened because of any false prophecies. Secondly, I would equate this scene to God simply levying His justice. Elsewhere in the Bible, God ordered Joshua to go and lay waste to the countryside. God didn't use a demon, but what's the difference? If you even believe that Joshua did any of those things, do you say that God ordered Joshua to sin? Of course not! It is the same here. I don't think any of your examples are evidence that God proactively caused anyone to sin.
I read all of your verses
All those verse contained the words "evil spirit of the LORD," which was in response to your suggestion that there is no such thing (I agree, but the Old testament seems to use it, especially and exclusively in the Historical Books).
The rest of your post is a rationalization. In one place you say "God ordered Joshua to go and lay waste to the countryside...do you say that God ordered Joshua to sin?" Well, only you can read something so clear and say it's not what the Bible suggests. In fact, in the OT, God orders slaughters of thousands of people. But, those much better versed in the OT than I am tell me they find "rivers of love" and even Christ in all that. Curious.
Let me say this: I don't ever think that God would make or cause anyone to sin. I just don't see it so clearly in the OT.