First, what is Paul talking about? Is he defining what is necessary for salvation in 3:28, or is he primarily negating something? It should be very clear that he is doing the latter. A read from 1:18 to 3:20 is NOT a contrast between the impartiality of God and the universality of sin (thus, the false idea of total depravity - which Paul refutes in Chapter 2!). Paul is discussing the equality of retribution of the Jew AND the Greek concerning God. Not ALL sinners are guilty - but that ALL are equally EXPOSED to the wrath of God - INCLUDING JEWS, seeing that vv. 3:19-20 demonstrate the ineffectiveness of the Law for salvation. Paul is merely repeating this for effect in v. 3:28 - and continues his attack on circumcision, the sacred cow of Judaism, in Chapter 4. Two points for you...
"What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit [is there] of circumcision?" 3:1
Doesn't that say enough on what Paul is talking about? Paul has just got done telling the Jews (2:28) that even pagans can be spiritually circumcised - the heart - by the Holy Spirit. NOT BY THE LAW! What is Paul alluding to?
"And the LORD thy God will circumcise thine heart, and the heart of thy seed, to love the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul, that thou mayest live. And the LORD thy God will put all these curses upon thine enemies, and on them that hate thee, which persecuted thee. And thou shalt return and obey the voice of the LORD, and do all his commandments which I command thee this day. And the LORD thy God will make thee plenteous in every work of thine hand, in the fruit of thy body, and in the fruit of thy cattle, and in the fruit of thy land, for good: for the LORD will again rejoice over thee for good, as he rejoiced over thy fathers. If thou shalt hearken unto the voice of the LORD thy God, to keep his commandments and his statutes which are written in this book of the law, [and] if thou turn unto the LORD thy God with all thine heart, and with all thy soul.Deut 30:6-10
I hope you can see there is a difference between following the Law to "earn" wages, and following the Law out of Love, being led by the Spirit. Again, Paul's theme is NOT about the universality of evilness in men, but about the equality of men in God's eyes - whether Jew or Gentile. Thus, it is not necessary for Paul to DEFINE faith at this point. He does that elsewhere, and it is NOT alone!
I have said many times that my view is that faith includes love.
When you were "regenerated" and were eternally saved and made of the elect, what love was involved?
Why does it have to be mentioned in parables for the idea to be true? Perman only mentioned one parable (Minas-Luke 19) to make his point. Why is he wrong because he used other scripture in support? Maybe Jesus was focusing in His parables on the much greater issue, just getting in and never mind about any rewards. I don't think that means both can't be true.
Again, Perman is reaching. He tries to make such things as 2 Cor 4 and Mat 5 show DIFFERENT versions of the vision of heaven. These verses merely show what A saved elect person will see - NOT "if you have 87 points of faith, you will receive a window view" or something like that. His verses do NOT describe any differences of the Beatific Vision based on good deeds - or anything. They just aren't mentioned. And the Luke 19 parable is taken out of context. God gave the first man a particular gift - and he received a reward parallel to the gift God gave him. The second man also received a smaller gift - and God rewarded him accordingly. IT was NOT based on HOW WELL the man did it! Read it more closely. Those rewarded received a proportionate amount based on what they ORIGINALLY RECEIVED! There is no judgment on "how much change" they would get! It was either all or nothing. And each parable where Christ speaks of judgment is the same manner. Nothing about some people getting a window view in their room in heaven...
I just think that salvation itself and rewards in heaven are completely different subjects.
Where does Scripture talk about different rewards in heaven? Again, this is something made up to comply with the Protestant buzz words "we are saved by faith alone". Thus, deeds done on earth are somehow relegated to your "level" you will achieve in heaven. This is an incredible leap of eigesis that is not shown in Scriptures.
Without the sense of a physical touch, haven't you ever felt "led" by God to do something?
I always feel that I can, at the moment of decision, refuse it or comply with it. I don't feel inexorably and forcibly committed to do something. Human self-consciousness refutes the idea that man has no free will.
Regards
When you were "regenerated" and were eternally saved and made of the elect, what love was involved?
Do you want a number? I'm not sure what kind of an answer you are looking for. God had given me faith, which included love for Him. I knew that I needed Him and I knew that He loved me. It was a child-like faith, meaning without any sophisticated knowledge of theology. Now I have some measure of sanctification, and that only confirms to me that the faith I originally had was from God and was real.
Again, Perman is reaching. He tries to make such things as 2 Cor 4 and Mat 5 show DIFFERENT versions of the vision of heaven.
Not different from each other. At the beginning of where I start quoting him, he compares them to make the same point. But you must mean different from the Catholic vision of heaven, so that could be. It's a difference of opinion. I do think that salvation and rewards in heaven are two distinct subjects and are both discussed in the Bible. Do you think that everyone from John the Baptist all the way down someone like me, who MIGHT barely get in, will all get the same sized double-wide in heaven? :)
And the Luke 19 parable is taken out of context. God gave the first man a particular gift - and he received a reward parallel to the gift God gave him. The second man also received a smaller gift - and God rewarded him accordingly. IT was NOT based on HOW WELL the man did it! Read it more closely.
I read it very closely and what are you talking about? :) Every man received the same amount, one mina. Ten servants, ten minas. This is proved when they start giving their accounts. Each says "your mina [earned]..." (singular). How do you conclude differently? In my Bible this parable is directly contrasted AGAINST the parable of the talents, in which different amounts were given to different people.
Where does Scripture talk about different rewards in heaven?
That was the whole point of the Perman article, with many scriptural references. I can't top it. :)
Human self-consciousness refutes the idea that man has no free will.
Ask your cookie daughter what she did with her free will. :)