At least in my discussions with you I always took the literal meaning. What is typically happening though is that the Protestants tend to look at the scripture myopically and overlook the context. It does not make their reading plain or literal, it makes it incorrect.
There are things in the faith of the fathers that do not come directly from the scripture, such as veneration of saints. But when the scripture is the direct justification for a doctrine, it is read literally. It is not read literalistically as if theology were a Bible quoting bee.
Agree. I think what FK is getting at is that anything that doesn't meet HIS "plain reading" of the Scripture is not plain reading of the Scriptures. The last 500 posts have shown that "plain reading" is not so plain to all. Plain reading must take into account the Scriptures as a whole and the context in which they are read.
I think he is still upset about Romans 3 and how Psalm 119 over and over disagree with each other (plainly speaking!)
"Blessed [are] they that keep his testimonies, [and that] seek him {God} with the whole heart. They also do no iniquity: they walk in his ways". Psalm 119:2-3.
With my whole heart have I sought thee: O let me not wander from thy commandments. Psalm 119:10
This continues for the next 166 verses... It is hard to miss the plain meaning.
There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God. Romans 3:11
Here is another way that the plain meaning requires interpretation...
"The fool hath said in his heart, [There is] no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, [there is] none that doeth good. " Psalm 14:1, and virtually repeated in Psalm 53:1
Is the Psalmster talking about the fool or ALL men???!!! Context, brother.
Why is it so difficult to see that it is the FOOL that Paul is talking about, the wicked - not mankind in general?
Regards