Again, you are having a problem with time. Christ's sacrifice on the cross forgives ALL men's sins potentially, the elect and the damned. But who will ASK FOR THIS FORGIVENESS? We are REQUIRED to REPENT to be forgiven. Consider the Lord's Prayer. God's forgiveness is conditional. Thus, the wicked, who do not seek God, will not be OFFERED the Lord's work. We (I hope you and I) will and be offered Christ's forgiveness. Christ's forgiveness, thus, is not applied until that time when we sin and beg His forgiveness.
Under what circumstances will Jesus not speak for a believer? If he hasn't confessed his latest sins yet?
See above. But another point to consider, my brother, is that sin is not only a legal status, but also an ontological stance. We actually suffer, our human dignity, suffers as a result of sin. We are held slaves to it. We are wounded by its effects. Thus, Christ provided His ministry of Reconciliation to HEAL us from those effects - not only to change our legal status with God, but to give us life and give it to us to the fullest (as much as possible) even here on earth.
Does this mean no one is in Christ Jesus until he confesses his last sin before he dies?
Is someone in Christ when a Christian murders or commits adultery? You be the judge. There is more to being a Christian than a name. Only those who DO THE WILL OF THE FATHER IN HEAVEN shall enter the Kingdom.
Regards
I've got....... a temporal fever....... and the only cure is........ MORE COWBELL! :)
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Christ's sacrifice on the cross forgives ALL men's sins potentially, the elect and the damned.
In John 19:30, what does Christ mean by "It is finished"? I read that the Greek word means "paid in full", as opposed to potentially.
Consider the Lord's Prayer. God's forgiveness is conditional.
Very debatable, but I don't buy it. If God's forgiveness is conditional, then you are setting up a two-way covenant. Many moons ago, you burned me fair and square with the Mosaic Covenant, but you never mentioned the New Covenant as being two-way. :) I know you believe that if your sins are not forgiven that you are not going to heaven, so this IS a salvational issue. How is this reconciled?
But another point to consider, my brother, is that sin is not only a legal status, but also an ontological stance. We actually suffer, our human dignity, suffers as a result of sin. We are held slaves to it. We are wounded by its effects.
On all of this, I have no doubt. What surprises me is that I thought you had an aversion to ideas of us being either "slaves to sin" or "slaves to righteousness". Or, am I taking you out of context?
FK: "Does this mean no one is in Christ Jesus until he confesses his last sin before he dies?"
Is someone in Christ when a Christian murders or commits adultery? You be the judge. There is more to being a Christian than a name. Only those who DO THE WILL OF THE FATHER IN HEAVEN shall enter the Kingdom.
You mean like David, on both counts? He certainly wasn't ACTING in Christ when he did those things, but by your own statement, where is David today? Yes, David asked forgiveness. Is your view that he was damned from the time he committed all those sins until he asked forgiveness of God? Could Jesus have been the "Son of" a damned person, had David not used his free will to confess and seek forgiveness? Here is where we go back to the "time" and "simultaneous" issue, so I'll hold until I read your response to my earlier post. :)