It is in this context that he declared that "all have sinned and need the glory of God". It is clear now, is it not, that "all" refers to the Jews who rely on the law of Moses and the pagan Greeks who only have natural law. It does not refer to the Christians at all, -- it describes the state of mankind before the sanctifying grace of Christ.
This kind of reasoning is precisely why I am a protester. Sometimes it seems that the only way for Catholicism to work is to throw out the plain meaning of the verse. Notice that the verb and form used in Rom. 3:23 is EXACTLY the same used in Rom. 5:12 -
12 Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all men, because all sinned— ...
I don't see any reasonable interpretation that says this does not refer to ALL of mankind, save Jesus. This is why I will not trust any hierarchy. The need for a preferred philosophy requires stretching scripture into the most unnatural shapes. I know that you will say that your hierarchy has special insight directly from God, but it doesn't make sense to me that God would write so cryptically. ("All" doesn't mean "All") I think of Christianity as being a revealed religion, not to just a few hierarchs.
To read the scripture one must inderstand the context, that is all. In fact, it often amazes me how complex doctrines of the Church are confronted by the Protestants with single-phrase quotes, -- quotes that come invariably from a lengthy explanation of some other dictrine of the Church. And as invariably the Protestant prooftext collapses once the quote is seen in context. But then, of course, we face this "plain meaning" accusation. The plain meaning comes from the context, does it not? Did I not give and explain the context?
Let us examine Romans 5 now. The same prooftexting rigmarole repeats here. The topic is the connection between sin and death, on one hand and Christ and eternal life on the other. It concludes in verse 21 thus
That as sin hath reigned to death; so also grace might reign by justice unto life everlasting, through Jesus Christ our Lord.
The plain meaning here is not that all sin, but that through Christ all are free from sin. Which, of course, includes Virgin Mary, sanctified at her immaculate conception. Romans 5:12 does not contradict her sinlessness at all.
You are familiar with the legal language in which contracts and product manuals are written. There are overloaded with clauses, caveats, subclauses and footnotes in order to escape some or another prooftext that would incriminate the partner of the contract. So we read that lawn mowers are not to be used to do haircuts, that the back side of a ladder should not be used as the front side, that frying pans are harmful if swallowed, etc. I suppose St. Paul could have written Romans in a similar way:
all Greeks and Jews, prior to they conversion by Christ have sinned; where Jews are to be understood for the purposes of this discussion as either natural Jews or converts, as well as members of the household of thus defined Jew, as per the Law of Moses and matrilinearly, while Greeks are to be understood expansively as any citizens or residents of the Roman Empire, or members of their household inasmuch as they keep pagan worship; none in this group or groups shall apply to children before age of reason or the mentally ill, or Virgin Mary at all time of her life. The members of the above group or groups need the glory of God.
Brother, regarding Romans 3. Realize that when Paul quotes the Old Testament, he always considers the context. He is quoting from several of the Psalms. Here is an example from Psalms 5:
For thou [art] not a God that hath pleasure in wickedness: neither shall evil dwell with thee. The foolish shall not stand in thy sight: thou hatest all workers of iniquity. Thou shalt destroy them that speak leasing: the LORD will abhor the bloody and deceitful man. But as for me, I will come [into] thy house in the multitude of thy mercy: [and] in thy fear will I worship toward thy holy temple. Lead me, O LORD, in thy righteousness because of mine enemies; make thy way straight before my face. For [there is] no faithfulness in their mouth; their inward part [is] very wickedness; their throat [is] an open sepulchre; they flatter with their tongue. Destroy thou them, O God; let them fall by their own counsels; cast them out in the multitude of their transgressions; for they have rebelled against thee. But let all those that put their trust in thee rejoice: let them ever shout for joy, because thou defendest them: let them also that love thy name be joyful in thee. For thou, LORD, wilt bless the righteous; with favour wilt thou compass him as [with] a shield.
Over and over, the Psalms speaks of the two "ways". Those who follow God and those who do not. Those who do not follow God, there is not one righteous among them. Not even one. They all follow their own ways...and so forth. This is what Paul is saying in Romans 3. King David was speaking of unrighteous JEWS. Just because one is a Jew doesn't mean he is righteous. One's birth does not determine whether one is saved.
IF one was to say that Paul actually means that ALL men are wicked, then Paul ALSO must mean that Jesus is wicked as well. Paul does NOT exclude Jesus anywhere in Romans 3. Thus, we know that Paul is NOT refering to ALL mankind when he says they are ALL wicked. Only those who turn from God are wicked. Every last one of them. Otherwise, you would have the Bible disagree with the numerous times that it refers to men and women as righteous!!! And Jesus is wicked?
The need for a preferred philosophy requires stretching scripture into the most unnatural shapes.
I wonder why it took Christianity 1500 years to figure out the "truth" of the Gospel according to Luther! If Paul means ALL men are wicked, then ALL men are wicked. That would include Jesus. Simple as that. You can't have it both ways.
Regards