"My premise for asking the question was that Adam was not created in perfection, because he had the free will to sin, and of course, he did."
FK, where do you get the idea that because man was created with Free Will, a divine attribute, that that meant he wasn't created perfect? By the way, I agree, Adam was not created in a state of complete theosis.
"In heaven, there is no sin, so we will be "perfect" then, although not equal to God or His essence in any sense. So, another way to ask my same question would be: "could Jesus have used His free will and sinned"? I would answer 'No', not because He doesn't have the power to do whatever He wants, but because it is not His nature to sin."
There is no "sin" in heaven because every being in heaven is in a state of theosis. Remember that the English word "sin" is a translation of the Greek word "amartia" which means "to miss the mark". The mark is Christ and missing the mark means we aren't being Christ like. Christ of course does not need to be "Christ-like". Asking whether therefore if Chrust could exercise His Free Will and sin is meaningless.
"The incarnation of Jesus was in perfection, unlike Adam."
Quite right, but in this Adam and Christ, the New Adam, are alike; Adam had the potential to become like a god and transmit that potentiality to his descendants. It was his created purpose. That potential was lost by the Sin of Adam. Christ, the New Adam restored the potential for theosis to the descendants of Adam.
Perhaps I stated it clumsily. In my mind I was drawing an analogy to building a car. If you built a car that never got old, that never wore out, and never broke down, then you have built a perfect car. If, however, it was inevitable that the car would break down, then the car was not created in perfection. I am saying that since Adam was fully human, and had the ability to sin, that it was inevitable that at some point he would. The human nature is that we will do all things which we can, whether good (through God) or evil (on our own account).
Asking whether therefore if Christ could exercise His Free Will and sin is meaningless.
Yes, it is very meaningless. Therefore, Christ's free will is not comparable to that of man's. Christ's free will never leads to sin. Man's free will always leads to sin (before theosis anyway). But, you said above that free will is a divine attribute. How is this reconciled?
BTW, and as an aside, you totally outed yourself as a lawyer in your # 2217. :) (I'm nonpracticing.) I had always suspected because of your writing, but after 2217 I knew. Then, I clicked on your profile page and there it was. I don't know why, but I always get a jolly out of recognizing another lawyer in an "out of context" situation like this. :)