The citations of the OT say nothing about “temple virgins” and this is the kind of slight of hand (or words) that is necessary to support a temple virgin fable.
Josephus was cited but he says nothing about temple virgins in fact he writes in Bk 5,
“For since there was a partition built for the women on that side, as the proper place wherein they were to worship, there was a necessity for a second gate for them: this gate was cut out of its wall, over against the first gate. There was also on the other sides one southern and one northern gate, through which was a passage into the court of the women; for as to the other gates, the women were not allowed to pass through them; nor when they went through their own gate could they go beyond their own wall. This place was allotted to the women of our own country, and of other countries, provided they were of the same nation, and that equally”.
The idea of Mary and temple virgins is simply an attempt to force fit Scripture to myth.
I agree with you entirely, and the paucity of evidence on the subject of 'Temple virgins' confirms your position.
In that regard, one may speculate that the RCC's orders of women, and by extrapolation '!!!MARY!!!' come from a syncretism with pagan ideology - Such syncretism as the Roman church fully admits. This speculation better fits as an explanation, and within it, evidences abound - More evidence by far than the fairy tale they would want us to accept in the OP.