Certain Bishops in Certain Jurisdictions, same as within the Catholic church relaxed the teaching. (I think I posted a link to an exhaustive look at this).
The orthodox objection to the papal supremacy is not with regard to how often he uses it, it is with regard to the fact they find it heretical.
I hadn't realized that the Orthodox Church declared Ecumenical Councils validly led by the Bishop of Rome are no longer infallible. Because this WAS believed BEFORE the Great Schism... Can you point me to an Orthodox Ecumenical Council that made that statement?
The problem here is that you are using "papal supremacy" without defining it. Secondly, you seem to believe that the Church is frozen in time at the year 1054 - that Doctrine developed throughout the first millenium, then stopped at that date. Know that just as the Catholic Church continued to define doctrine after the Nestorians left, or the Armenians left, or the Coptics left, the Catholic Church will CONTINUE to define doctrine after the Orthodox or the Protestants left the Church. Is this surprising?
Regards