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To: Petrosius
” How many time do we have to go over this? There is plenty of documentary evidence that the Deuterocanonical books were universally used in Christian worship as Holy Scripture from the time of the Apostles and that they were officially confirmed as such by Pope Innocent I at the beginning of the 5th century. The periodic questions that were raised about them were private opinions that never effected their use in worship or their official recognition by the Church. ”

Your facts are much in error. As are the apocryphal books.

First, the Jewish Canon does not include the Apocrypha.

This is significant as it was to the Jews that the OT was entrusted (Rom 3:1,2) and they are the custodians of the limits of their own canon.

Josephus (A.D. 30-100), a Jewish historian explicitly excluded the Apocrypha.

The Jewish Talmud teaches that the Holy Spirit departed from Israel after the time of Malachi. How do you explain this?

How did the Council of Trent ever declare the Apocrypha was Scripture in the first place? Much in the same way Vatican I decreed papal infallibility.

Admit it, that is the crux of this matter, my friend.

54 posted on 11/14/2005 2:27:28 PM PST by ~Matahari (“earnestly contend for the faith once delivered unto the saints” (Jude 3))
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To: ~Matahari
How did the Council of Trent ever declare the Apocrypha was Scripture in the first place?

They reiterated what other councils had taught for the previous millenium, back to a time before either the OT or NT canon was firmly decided. Please try to keep up, we get tired of refuting the same ahistorical errors over and over again.

55 posted on 11/14/2005 2:29:39 PM PST by Campion ("I am so tired of you, liberal church in America" -- Mother Angelica, 1993)
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To: ~Matahari

Read the article.


58 posted on 11/14/2005 2:38:44 PM PST by jcb8199
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To: ~Matahari
Your facts are much in error.

Which facts are in error? Do you dispute that the Church used the Deuterocanonical books in its public worship? Do you dispute that Pope Innocent the first confirmed that they are a part of Holy Scripture in 405 A.D.?

First, the Jewish Canon does not include the Apocrypha.

The Jewish authorities did not exclude the Deutercanonical books from their canon until the Council of Jamnia in 90 A.D. By that time the authority of determining the canon of the Bible in its entirety had passed to the Christian Church.

The Jewish Talmud teaches that the Holy Spirit departed from Israel after the time of Malachi. How do you explain this?

Since when have Christians placed any authority in the Talmud? The Talmud also denies that Jesus is the Messiah. Do you?

How did the Council of Trent ever declare the Apocrypha was Scripture in the first place?

The Council of Trent only reconfirmed what was declared at the Council of Hippo in 393, the Councils of Carthage in 397 and 418, Pope Innocent I in 405, and the Council of Florence in 1442. The Council of Trent reconfirmed these decisions because Martin Luther was challenging what was already established Catholic practice.

85 posted on 11/14/2005 3:38:20 PM PST by Petrosius
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