If you continue reading in Hebrews through chapter 9 you will see what had become obsolete....certainly not the recognition and observance of God's Feast Days and Sabbaths. As mentioned in previous posts, the Levitical priesthood with all of the regulations and ceremonies had been replaced. See Hebrews 7:11-28. God's Holy Days and Commandments were not part of the priesthood. I truly am sorry you cannot see this....especially when those statuates and ordinances were given to us for all times.
Well, as I said it's not in the Bible so perhaps that is why I cannot see it. The holy days are demonstrably linked to the priesthood.
"Speak to the children of Israel, and say to them: 'When you come into the land which I give to you, and reap its harvest, then you shall bring a sheaf of the firstfruits of your harvest to the priest. He shall wave the sheaf before the Lord, to be accepted on your behalf; on the day after the Sabbath the priest shall wave it. ... Then you shall sacrifice one kid of the goats as a sin offering, and two male lambs of the first year as a sacrifice of a peace offering. ... The priest shall wave them with the bread of the firstfruits as a wave offering before the Lord, with the two lambs. They shall be holy to the Lord for the priest. ...These are the feasts of the Lord which you shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to offer an offering made by fire to the Lord, a burnt offering and a grain offering, a sacrifice and drink offerings, everything on its day ... " (Lev. 23:10,11,19,20,37)
Perhaps you can be more careful in the book of Hebrews and should verse by verse where the writer does away with part of the Levitical code but not all.
"For the priesthood being changed, of necessity there is also a change of the law." (Heb. 7:12)
Some of the law, or all of the law, has changed?
Certain important points remain unanswered by you.
1) All the holy days of the old covenant were all given in the context of blood sacrifices, the tabernacle, and the priesthood.
2) All the holy days were types of the work of Christ, esp. the passover. Christ fulfilled all the law, esp. the ceremonial law, so that Christians are no longer bound to keep those provisions (food, drink, clothing, days and seasons, etc).
3) Only one holy day, the Passover, was transposed into the Lord's Supper on the authority of Christ and His apostles.
4) The other holy days are never again mentioned in the new covenant and were decaying and passed away with the rest of the old covenant (Heb. 8:13). The apostles never kept these holy days in the context of the church. They regarded them as "feasts of the Jews" (John 5:1). While they may have attended to the temple for a time while it was still standing as a witness to the Jews, they recognized the finality of the old covenant passing when it was destroyed.
5) God has given no explicit commandment in His word for the keeping of erstaz holy days that do not conform to the law as found in Leviticus.
"I truly am sorry you cannot see this."
You mean like this one?
"'For on that day the priest shall make atonement for you, to cleanse you, that you may be clean from all your sins before the Lord. It is a sabbath of solemn rest for you, and you shall afflict your souls. It is a statute forever. And the priest, who is anointed and consecrated to minister as priest in his father's place, shall make atonement, and put on the linen clothes, the holy garments; then he shall make atonement for the Holy Sanctuary, and he shall make atonement for the tabernacle of meeting and for the altar, and he shall make atonement for the priests and for all the people of the assembly. This shall be an everlasting statute for you, to make atonement for the children of Israel, for all their sins, once a year.' And he did as the Lord commanded Moses." (Lev. 16:30-34).
The bloody day of atonement was give as an "everlasting statute", yet no one follows it today as it was given in its "everlasting" form. There are ersatz renderings, but nothing that pleases the Lord.
Now, you may argue that Christ fulfilled the statute and it is still "everlasting" in the sense that He has atoned for His people for all time, but then the question becomes why stop there? If Christ fulfilled one "everlasting" statute then why did He not fulfill all the "everlasting" statutes and ordinances? To this question you have given no good answer.