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To: topcat54; Diego1618; XeniaSt; laney
'You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek'" (Heb. 5:6). It was not a change of the Levitical Order. It was an abolishment of the Levitical Order.

Completely agree.

The "holy days" were part and parcel of the Levitical system.

Not so. God's feast days fall outside of any covenant and here's why.

1. Passover, one of God's festivals, was established and inaugerated before the covenant was struck at Mt. Sinai. This occurs in Exodus chapter 12 and was not part of any covenant.

2. Jesus Christ always kept the holy days even though he routinely eschewed non-biblical Jewish traditions. BTW, this should be reason enough for any follower of Christ to keep the Lord's holy days.

3. Paul expressly says in scripture that the feast of unleavened bread is to be kept:

1Co 5:7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
1Co 5:8 Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

4. God's Holy Days are prophesized to be kept in the future. For example, Zechariah prophesizes that after the day of the Lord:

Zec 14:16 And it shall come to pass, that every one that is left of all the nations which came against Jerusalem shall even go up from year to year to worship the King, the LORD of hosts, and to keep the feast of tabernacles.

ALL nations. And what is the price of not keeping the feast of tabernacles in the future?

Zec 14:18 And if the family of Egypt go not up, and come not, that have no rain; there shall be the plague, wherewith the LORD will smite the heathen that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.
Zec 14:19 This shall be the punishment of Egypt, and the punishment of all nations that come not up to keep the feast of tabernacles.

Therefore the holy days are not part of any covenant, but instead are days that God created to help us understand and celebrate his plan of salvation.

Another interesting verse is Genesis 1:14

Gen 1:14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years:

The word translated "seasons" is the same hebrew word used in reference to God's feast days. It's the "set time" when we are to come before the Lord.

61 posted on 09/27/2005 3:01:09 PM PDT by DouglasKC
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To: DouglasKC; Diego1618; XeniaSt; laney
"The "holy days" were part and parcel of the Levitical system."

Not so. God's feast days fall outside of any covenant and here's why.

No so. See post #66.

Your verses that you have offered do not amount to any proof of your theory.

1. Passover, one of God's festivals, was established and inaugerated before the covenant was struck at Mt. Sinai. This occurs in Exodus chapter 12 and was not part of any covenant.

While Passover may have technically been given prior to the events of Mount Sinai, they are obviously linked, e.g.,

"And God spoke all these words, saying: 'I am the Lord your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. ... '" (Exodus 20:1,2)

The redemption of the people from Egypt, when the Passover was originally given, is highlighted during the Mount Sinai experience. We also have the fact that the "law" concerning Passover was given again after Sinai (Exodus 34) and in Leviticus 23.

2. Jesus Christ always kept the holy days even though he routinely eschewed non-biblical Jewish traditions. BTW, this should be reason enough for any follower of Christ to keep the Lord's holy days.

Jesus kept all the provisions of the holy days because He came to "fulfill all righteousness." He kept them perfectly and completely as they were given in the law of Moses. He did not keep the ersatz version that modern "messianic" are fond of keeping today. So to say that "we keep the holy days just like Jesus and Paul did" is a patently false and self-deceived statement. The ersatz "holy days" of the messianc are not the Lord's Holy Days, since they do not conform to His commandment's (Deut 12:32).

3. Paul expressly says in scripture that the feast of unleavened bread is to be kept:

Paul is speaking of spiritual things, not fleshly. There is no physical "unleavened bread" in Paul's comments. Rather, we are to observe these matters spiritually, i.e., "but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth." To take Paul's words with any other meaning is proof that you misunderstand the plain words he wrote and the very nature of the gospel.

4. God's Holy Days are prophesized to be kept in the future. For example, Zechariah prophesizes that after the day of the Lord:

Christ's coming was still future from Zechariah's point of view. Christ came and perfectly kept the law so we do not have to. Are things are fulfilled in Him, including Zech. 14, etc. When we worship Him in spirit and truth we also fulfill the law by virtue of His finished work. There will be no future holy day keeping. That's a fabrication of "literal" dispensational hermeneutics.

The word translated "seasons" is the same hebrew word used in reference to God's feast days. It's the "set time" when we are to come before the Lord.

This proves nothing. In fact it appears the argument is based on several logical fallacies, including hasty generalization and false analogy. Just because the same word is used in two different places does not mean that word has the same meaning in both.

67 posted on 09/28/2005 7:58:33 AM PDT by topcat54
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