t54>So you would agree that the sacrifice of Christ on the cross is the fulfillment of this "everlasting ordinance", with the type (the killing of an animal and shedding of its blood) giving way to the antitype (Christ's sacrifice on the cross)? If the sacrifice of animals, an "everlasting ordinance" is not longer in effect, why do some propose that the (bloodless??) festivals are still legitimate, rather than also being fulfilled in Christ? Where do "bloodless" festivals find legitimacy in Scripture? It's an odd position.
In a study of the Seven Feasts of the L-rd,
Y'shua fulfilled Pesach, hag Matzoh and fruits fruits on the day of the feast and in the metaphor as identified and in the place as defined.
On the "feast of weeks", Shavuot which is seven weeks and a day from the Feast of First Fruits. This would make it Fifty days ( Pentecost in the Koine Greek) the Ruach haKodesh descended and filled those who were assembled as they were required to by the Law in Jerusalem.
This leaves the Feast of Trumpets, Yom Kippur and Succoth yet to be fulfilled by the L-rd. on the day and in the metaphor as described in Leviticus 23.
b'shem Y'shua
b'shem Y'shua
That's a theory. It's not a very good one, but it's a theory. There is no reason to believe that Christ did not fulfill all the feast days at His first coming. Scripture says He fuliflled "all righteousness" (Matt. 3:15), and "all the law" (Matt. 5:17). Otherwise Christ did not fulfill "all the law", and you are dead in your trespasses and sin.