[armydoc]

Where does Richard of St. Laurence say that Christ's name won't do something that Mary's name will?

Where he says, in the third paragraph, "because it (Mary's name) alone will suffice to cure them of all their evils". It seems to me that "alone" is quite intentional.

[Pyro7480]

That doesn't answer my question.

[Claud]

Where he says, in the third paragraph, "because it (Mary's name) alone will suffice to cure them of all their evils". It seems to me that "alone" is quite intentional.

That may be a bad translation, but even if it isn't, it's clear that Richard of St. Laurence didn't hold to that "alone" in any absolute sense. Otherwise why would he say this is paragraph 1:

"there is not such powerful help in any name, nor is there any other name given to men, after that of Jesus."

You could add "the Holy Ghost" and "God" as well. Assuming the "alone" not a bad translation, I would just say that Richard's pen got ahead of his brain on this one. Anyone who claims that Mary's glory is in any way higher than Christ's is a heretic, plain and simple. Even Catholic theologians would make mincemeat out of such a statement.